Conversations with a Two-year-old
Kirsten: Baby, we don't have any.
Aiden: Go to Walmart and get oatmeal bar.
God's works of providence are, His most holy, wise, and powerful preserving and governing all his creatures, and all their actions.
(1) The word 'church' is not mentioned in chapters 4 through 19.Now, it should be clear that this is a really bad argument. In the first place, this is an argument from silence. It doesn't immediately follow that because something isn't mentioned, it doesn't exist. Moreoever, (3) doesn't follow from (1) and (2). All that follows is that the concept of the church doesn't exist between chapters 4 and 19. Unless you assume the doctrine of the rapture at the outset there is no reason to think there is a 'radical change' (i.e., a rapture) between chapters 3 and 4. But, thirdly, the real problem is the assumption that makes up (2). It is never actually stated, but it must be the assumption driving the argument. But it proves too much. The word 'God' never occurs in the book of Esther. It would follow from this assumption that God is not in the book of Esther. But this is absurd. The reason Esther in in the Canon is because God is The Chief Actor in the book. By His might and providence, He preserves His people and destroys His and their enemies. If follows from this that (2) is false and hence, the argument is a bad one.
(2) If a word is not mentioned, the concept does not exist.
(3) Therefore, the church is raptured.
(1) Justification is through faith in Christ alone. We affirm that justifying faith will necessarily produce good works. We deny that good works are a constituent element of justifying faith.and
(5) Baptism is a sign and seal of the covenant of grace. We affirm that the grace of baptism confirms our salvation and strengthens our faith. We deny that the ritual act of baptism accomplishes salvation or creates faith.First, it strikes me as odd that this resolution was even necessary. Everything in it is found in the Westminster Confession, why reinvent the wheel? The answer to that question leads me to my second interest. The reason this wheel was reinvented was because there are some who would have others believe that there are ministers in the PCA who deny these things.
What is important to note here is that the writer of the resolution should be careful to define 'accomplish salvation' in such a way as to not deny the Catechism's teaching that the sacraments are indeed 'effectual means of salvation'. Is he making a distinction between 'accomplish' and 'effectual'? If so, what is the distinction? If not, why the hubbub? As it stands it is less than clear.Q161: How do the sacraments become effectual means of salvation?
A161: The sacraments become effectual means of salvation, not by any power in themselves, or any virtue derived from the piety or intention of him by whom they are administered, but only by the working of the Holy Ghost, and the blessing of Christ, by whom they are instituted.
VI. The efficacy of baptism is not tied to that moment of time wherein it is administered; yet, notwithstanding, by the right use of this ordinance, the grace promised is not only offered, but really exhibited, and conferred, by the Holy Ghost, to such (whether of age or infants) as that grace belongeth unto, according to the counsel of God's own will, in his appointed time.and
(WCF XXVII.6, emphasis added)
VII. Worthy receivers, outwardly partaking of the visible elements, in this sacrament, do then also, inwardly by faith, really and indeed, yet not carnally and corporally but spiritually, receive, and feed upon, Christ crucified, and all benefits of his death: the body and blood of Christ being then, not corporally or carnally, in, with, or under the bread and wine; yet, as really, but spiritually, present to the faith of believers in that ordinance, as the elements themselves are to their outward senses.
(WCF XXIX.7, emphasis added)